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Exam Code: 000-609
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Data Power SOA Applicances V3.8.1 Solution IMP)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A solution implementer is debugging a Web Services Proxy with an HTTPS Front Side Handler
listening on port 443. On the backend it communicates with a service http://server1:9092/myserv. The
irregular performance to the backend service cannot be explained so a packet capture is run to dig
deeper into the issue. The results need to be stored in a file called capture-1. Also the developer does not
want to have irrelevant data captured so as to focus on the problem at hand. A size limit of 30 minutes of
capture time or 2.5 meg of total size of the data captured (which ever occurs first) needs to be imposed.
Which of the following packet capture CLI commands is correct?
A. packet-capture local:///capture-1 30 2.5 "host server1 and src port=443"
B. packet-capture temporary:///capture-1 30 2.5 "host server1 src port=443"
C. packet-capture temporary:///capture-1 1800 2500 "host server1 and dst port=443"
D. packet-capture temporary:///capture-1 1800 2500 "host server1 and dst port=9092"
Answer: D

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NO.2 The source appliance has been initialized with disaster recovery mode and is to be securely backed up
and restored on to the target appliance.
Which of the following statements is TRUE and supports the above conditions?
A. The target appliance must be set to disaster recovery mode for the secure restore to be successful.
B. Merge the contents of the source appliance with the target appliance so as to merge the users on both
appliances and do not use the overwrite option when prompted.
C. The target device will be overwritten. It is not possible to automatically merge the different users on
source and target appliances using secure backup and restore.
D. After a secure restore was run, the administrator realizes that some existing data on the target
appliance needs to be saved so the admin can stop the secure restore and start it later after backing up
required data on the target appliance
Answer: C

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4. A customer wants to protect communication between two WebSphere DataPower appliances against a
replay attack. The second DataPower appliance needs to validate that the messages received from the
first appliance have spent no more than 30 seconds in transit.
Which of the following configurations would meet these requirements?
A. Set the var://service/transaction-timeout variable on the first DataPower appliance to 30 seconds.
B. Configure mutually authenticated SSL between the two DataPower appliances with an SSL timeout
configured to 30 seconds.
C. Configure the front side handler on the second DataPower appliance with the Stale Connection
Timeout field set to 30 seconds.
D. Use a scheduled processing policy rule on the second DataPower appliance containing a Filter action
and configured to run every 30 seconds.
E. Use symmetric encryption to encrypt a token containing a timestamp on the first DataPower appliance
and decrypt it on the second appliance.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which of the following IPv4 address classes supports a maximum of 256 addresses per subnet?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E
Answer: C

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
Given the information in the exhibit, which XPath expression locates the element named "Company"?
A. /*/Company
B. /*/*/Customer/*[1]
C. /msg:message/*/Customer/*
D. /msg:message/payload/*/*[1]
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which XML document is NOT valid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the correct CIDR notation for the IP Address below?
IP Address: 192.168.1.81
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
A. 192.168.1.81/8
B. 192.168.1.81/16
C. 192.168.1.81/24
D. 192.168.1.81/32
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following XML messages is a valid SOAP fault under the SOAP 1.1 standard?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following IPv4 IP addresses is the loopback address?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.1
C. 127.0.0.0
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 255.255.255.0
F. 255.255.255.1
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer would like to use a WebSphere DataPower service to translate inbound xml messages into
COBOL copybook messages. The translation will be performed by a predefined WebSphere
Transformation Extender map file. The DataPower service should support both WebSphere MQ and
HTTP on the front-side.
Based on the scenario above, which of the following is the MOST appropriate DataPower service type?
A. Web Service Proxy
B. XML Firewall Service
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.10 SSL uses which encryption type to create a session between client and server?
A. Private Key encryption
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. Both Symmetric and Asymmetric encryption
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer would like to use a Multi-Protocol Gateway (MPGW) to process an inbound XML message
and use a local XSL file to map some of its data to a SOAP message.
When configuring the processing policy for this MPGW, which of the following actions should be used for
the data mapping?
A. Transform (xform)
B. Transform PI (xformpi)
C. Transform Binary (xformbin)
D. Transform SOAP (xformsoap)
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is an advantage of using WS-Security instead of SSL?
A. Provides assured message delivery.
B. Provides message integrity for the entire message.
C. Provides security in end-to-end scenarios across trust boundaries.
D. Provides mutual authentication to authenticate both the server and client.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the size (in bytes) of an IPv6 IP address?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following protocols are NOT supported by Front Side Handlers?
A. FTP
B. NFS
C. RSS
D. IIOP
E. Tibco EMS
F. WebSphere MQ
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Which of the following SOAP messages is valid according to the SOAP specification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is NOT a required feature of a secure SSL connection?
A. Message integrity.
B. The negotiation of a shared secret key is secure.
C. The client credentials must be sent to the server.
D. The peer's identity can be authenticated using asymmetric, or public key cryptography.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The SAML Holder of Key (HOK) method uses PKI to establish trust between a consumer and provider
in different trust domains. An Attesting Entity that is trusted by both the consumer and the provider is used.
Here is an example of an HOK scenario:
1. A SOAP message is sent by a client to an Attesting Entity over SSL.
2) The Attesting Entity obtains the public key of the client and places it in the SAML token it is creating in
response to the client request, and digitally signs the token.
3) The client adds that SAML token to the SOAP header and constructs the SOAP body, signs it with its
own key, and calls the web service provider over SSL.
4) The web service provider verifies the SAML token was signed by the trusted Attesting Entity and
processes the message.
Given this scenario, which of the following elements of PKI are used to establish trust between the
consumer and provider?
A. The Attesting Entity, provider and consumer use a shared private key to establish trust between them.
B. The Attesting Entity sends its public key to the provider which the provider compares to the trusted
public key in its key store to establish trust.
C. The Attesting Entity digitally signs the consumer message with its private key which the provider
verifies using the trusted public key of the Attesting Entity.
D. The Attesting Entity vouches for the consumer since it authenticated the consumer first and asserts
that by sending a SAML token to the provider over a secure channel.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which XML document is valid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A bank wants to use PKI so that its partners can securely access financial transaction data.
Certificates signed by a well-known Certificate Authority are used to implement the solution.
Which of the following solution requirements match an appropriate field in the certificate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Answer: AC

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NO.20 A company is planning to implement disaster recovery (DR) for their two existing WebSphere
DataPower Integration Appliance XI50s which have been used for different projects.
The following conditions apply:
1. The two devices (source and target appliance) are located in geographically dispersed data centers.
2) The firmware level is V3.8.1 on the source appliance and V3.8.1 on the target appliance and their
hardware is compatible
3) Both appliances have a different set of users that need to be merged

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Exam Code: 000-022
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two steps can be used to verify the installation and configuration of the Response Time
Monitoring agents? (Choose two.)
A. The Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services (MTEMS) utility should say Running for the
Response Time agents.
B. Reboot and manually start the agent process.
C. The MTEMS utility should say Installed for the Response Time agents. DOpen the Tivoli Enterprise
Portal and verify that the Response Time agents are active in the navigator tree.
D. Verify that the kt*agent.exe process is running on Windows and the kt*agent is running on UNIX/Linux,
where t* is the product code.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When installing the IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1 Transaction
Tracking components, which command is used to add application support to the Tivoli Enterprise
Monitoring Server?
A. itmcmd agent
B. itmcmd config
C. itmcmd manage
D. itmcmd support
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement regarding the installation log file is true when installing Rational Robot (RR) V7 on a
Windows server?
A. The log file is located in RR install directory with file name install.log.
B. The log file is located in {RR install directory}\log directory with file name Rational_install.log.
C. The log file is located in a directory selected during RR installation with the file name set in a
configuration file.
D. The log file is located in a directory set by the %TEMP% environment variable with file name
Rational_install.log.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which three locations are support files installed for IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for
Transactions V7.1 Transaction Tracking component? (Choose three.)
A. Tivoli Data Warehouse
B. Internet Service Monitoring
C. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
D. Transaction Tracking API Server
E. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
F. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Desktop Client
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.5 What is the minimum required access privileges for installing IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager
for Transactions V7.1 on UNIX/Linux?
A. root user
B. power user
C. install users
D. non-root user
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the simplest configuration in order to provide fault-tolerant operation for Internet Service
Monitoring (ISM)?
A. Create two separate ISM installations.
B. This component does not support fault.
C. Install two ISM agents per server tolerance.
D. Implement IBM TivoliMonitoring fault-tolerant architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which command must be run after installing new agent application support on Tivoli Enterprise Portal
Server on UNIX/Linux?
A. tacmdconfig cqtacmd config ? cq
B. itmcmdconfig cqitmcmd config ? cq
C. tacmdsupport cqtacmd support ? cq
D. itmcmdsupport cqitmcmd support ? cq
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which JDK version is required for Rational Performance Tester V8?
A. IBM JDK 1.3
B. IBM JDK 1.4
C. IBM JDK 1.2
D. IBM JDK 1.5
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are the three necessary steps to migrate from an existing Internet Service Monitoring installation,
after upgrading to IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1? (Choose Three.)
A. copy custom rules files
B. convert existing profiles
C. delete old data directory
D. transfer custom properties
E. reconfigure the agent workspaces
F. reconfigure the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Which command can be used to verify that application support for Tivoli Enterprise Portal Desktop
client has been installed on UNIX/Linux?
A. cinfo -r
B. cinfo -a
C. cinfo -v
D. cinfo -i
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1 agent should be installed to
have a consolidated view of all application performance and availability?
A. to
B. t3
C. t4
D. t5
Answer: B

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NO.12 After installing a new agent type for the first time, agent support files should be installed on the Tivoli
Enterprise Monitoring Server, Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server, and Tivoli Enterprise Portal desktop client.
What is this process called?
A. sowing
B. seeding
C. sourcing
D. stitching
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1 agent should be installed to
view application and transaction topologies to identify root cause of performance bottlenecks?
A. to
B. t3
C. t4
D. tu
Answer: A

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NO.14 On UNIX/Linux, when installing application support for Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS), which
command configures the TEPS with the new agent information?
A. ./itmcmd support -t
B. ./itmcmd config cq./itmcmd config ? cq
C. ./itmcmd config cj./itmcmd config ? cj
D. ./itmcmd support cj./itmcmd support ? cj
Answer: B

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NO.15 IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1 uses Data Collector plug-ins and
other components to accomplish Transaction Tracking. What are the two other components? (Choose
two.)
A. Web Response Time
B. Transaction Reporter
C. Transaction Collector
D. Internet Service Monitoring
E. Application Management Console
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 For silent installation of Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server on UNIX/Linux, which command is
executed?
A. install.sh
B. install.exe
C. install_silent.sh
D. install_silent.exe
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the estimated response time overhead caused by the agent after installing the MQ Proxy
agent?
A. less than 1ms
B. less than 10 ms
C. less than 100 ms
D. less than 1 second
Answer: A

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NO.18 How is a Rational Robot (RR) V7 license key imported?
A. Use IBM Rational License Key Administrator.
B. Run command license.exe from the RR installation directory.
C. Start IBM InstallationManager, and then click Manage Licenses.
D. Start RR, and then from the Option pull down menu select License.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the correct component to install in order to monitor a SAP client running on a Windows
workstation?
A. SAP data collector
B. SAP Tracking Agent
C. Web Response Time
D. Client Application Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.20 If a customer needs to monitor real end user response time for Lotus Notes and Outlook applications,
which IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.1 component should be installed?
A. Rational Robot
B. Web Response Time
C. Client Application Tracker
D. Rational Performance Tester
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-555
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Informix Dynamic Server 11.50 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two statements are correct about Remote Standalone (RS) secondary instances? (Choose
two.)
A. RS secondary instances can be dynamically added and removed.
B. RS secondary instances support automatic index repair.
C. RS secondary instances can become a HDR secondary.
D. RS secondary instancesrequires a HDR secondary to be present in order to function.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement will change the column address1 to a null value?
A. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
B. UPDATE customer SET address1 = '123 New Street', SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num =
134;
C. UPDATE customer SET address1 = "" WHERE customer_num = 134;
D. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null, SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to have the highest level of contention within transactions operating on the table
B. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
C. to have increased concurrency
D. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
Answer: C

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NO.5 Enterprise Replication (ER) requires which data object to exist in all tables participating in replication?
A. a virtual column
B. a unique index
C. a unique constraint
D. a primary key
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three statements will delete all rows from table_name? (Choose three.)
A. DELETE FROMtable_name ;
B. DELETEtable_name ;
C. DELETE * FROMtable_name ;
D. TRUNCATE TABLEtable_name ;
E. DELETE ALL FROMtable_name;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which keyword is used to determine whether a comparison is true for every value returned from a sub
query?
A. NOT
B. ALL
C. SOME
D. EVERY
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about the COMMIT WORK statement? (Choose two.)
A. The keyword WORK is optional.
B. The COMMIT WORK statement releases all row locks but not table locks.
C. All of the successful modifications that the transaction makes are saved to disk when you issue a
COMMIT WORK statement.
D. A new transaction automatically starts after each COMMIT WORK or ROLLBACK WORK statement in
anonlogged database.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 You can use a "role" to enforce which two kinds of security or access control in an instance and/or its
data? (Choose two.)
A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col1 of the rows having col1=20 that were updated to have col1 = 25 by client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.11 In which three places may a function be used in a SELECT statement? (Choose three.)
A. in the select (or projection) list
B. in a group by clause
C. in a sub query
D. in a predicate
E. in a cube definition
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which two instance types are disaster recovery oriented rather than high availability oriented?
(Choose two.)
A. an Enterprise Replication instance
B. a RS Secondary instance
C. a SD Secondary instance
D. a Continuous Log Restore instance
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 What are three system level databases? (Choose three.)
A. sysmaster
B. sysadmin
C. sysmonitor
D. sysutils
E. sysperf
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 In a SELECT statement, the clauses must appear in which order?
A. Projection, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, HAVING, INTO TEMP
B. Projection, FROM, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, INTO TEMP
C. Projection, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING, ORDER BY, INTO TEMP
D. Projection, FROM, INTO TEMP, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When you execute an INSERT statement, the database server will insert a NULL value into any
column that meets which two conditions? (Choose two.)
A. You provide no value for a specific column.
B. Where a zero is specified in the VALUES clause of a serial column.
C. Where you specify the NULL keyword in the VALUES clause for a specific column.
D. Columns that are used in indexes.
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which two steps are necessary to enable encryption with the Communication Support Modules?
(Choose two.)
A. Add an entry to the concsm.cfg file.
B. Add an entry to the options column of thesqlhosts file or registry.
C. Set the CSMENConconfig variable.
D. Set the encryption flag in theencrypt_db table in the sysadm database.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the select statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will select the rows that had col1=20 and were updated to have col1=25 by Client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without selecting any rows.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) locking row".
B. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock mode row".
C. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock level row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create tablet1(c1 int)".
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 000-034
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is used to quickly switch from one workspace to another in the Desktop Portal Client?
A. Link
B. Launch
C. Bookmark
D. Graphic Icon
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is provided for a user to view agent specific IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) data when Application
Support is installed and configured on ITM components?
A. Workspaces, Users, Events
B. Workspaces, Situations, Queries
C. Expert Advice, Charts, Templates
D. Situations, Queries, Take Actions
Answer: B

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NO.3 What determines the eligibility of a situation to a Navigator item?
A. Situation type.
B. Situation event state.
C. Managed systems associated with the Navigator item.
D. All situations are eligible for association with any Navigator item.
Answer: C

IBM test questions   000-034   000-034

NO.4 Which two places can Workspace Administration Mode permission authority be set? (Choose two.)
A. Users
B. Members
C. Member Of
D. User Groups
E. User Policies
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 When can an acknowledgement be created?
A. When others are working on the event.
B. When operations staff makes a request.
C. When an event indicator is visible in the Navigator.
D. When a situation fires and the administrator wants to be first to acknowledge the event.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What type of link uniquely identifies the target workspace?
A. Dynamic
B. Filtered
C. Relative
D. Absolute
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is an example of a data element that can be monitored with a situation?
A. CPU usage.
B. Timestamp for event arrival.
C. Event acknowledgement time.
D. Number of situations deployed.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the connectors in a Common Event Console?
A. The Event Handler is incorporated to pass events.
B. Connect to an event repository for the Common Event Console.
C. Retrieve event data to be displayed in the Common Event Console.
D. Send messages to the Message Log view from the Common Event Console.
Answer: C

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NO.9 How are attributes related to workspaces?
A. Workspaces use views to display attributes to the user.
B. Workspaces use attributes to determine graph types to display to the user.
C. Workspace settings are stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server using attributes.
D. Workspaces use attributes to determine which navigator items to associate with in the Navigator tree.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How is it determined if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. Launch the Situation Editor from the toolbar.
B. Right click the Required Navigator Item and select Situations.
C. Select the properties for the Navigator Item and click Situations.
D. Filter the situations for the Navigator item by Associated with Navigator Item.
Answer: B

IBM test questions   000-034   000-034

NO.11 How are new managed systems groups created?
A. They are created when IBM Tivoli Monitoring is installed.
B. They are created in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services.
C. They are created using the Object Editor under the Managed Systems Group tab.
D. They are created with the Situation Editor within the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which workspace chart best represents the proportional value of each data point to the whole.?
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Plot Chart
D. Circular Gauge Chart
Answer: A

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NO.13 Where are policies designed in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client?
A. In the Views.
B. In the Workspace.
C. In the Workflow Editor.
D. In the Situation Editor.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where are attributes to be displayed in a workspace view selected?
A. In the Query tab of each workspace Properties.
B. In the Filters tab of each workspace Properties.
C. In the Query tab of each workspace view's Properties.
D. In the Filters tab of each workspace view's Properties.
Answer: D

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NO.15 When performing an investigation into the increased disk space usage of a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Agent, it is discovered that the historical data file is quite large. Which two actions will decrease the
amount of data stored in that file? (Choose two.)
A. Change Summarization from Daily to Hourly.
B. Reduce the Warehouse Interval from 1 day to 1 hour.
C. Increase the Warehouse Interval from 1 hour to 12 hours.
D. Increase the Collection Interval from 1 minute to 15 minutes.
E. Decrease the Collection Interval from 30 minutes to 5 minutes.
Answer: B, D

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NO.16 Which two items are managed by right clicking an agent in a navigator tree? (Choose two.)
A. Queries
B. Policies
C. Situations
D. Attributes
E. Attribute Groups
Answer: B, C

IBM   000-034   000-034 practice test

NO.17 What is the minimum interval for Summarization and Pruning?
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.18 When is persistent event monitoring useful in IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM)?
A. To count the number of events in ITM.
B. To determine when a situation is needed.
C. To determine whether a condition is consistent or intermittent.
D. To determine when more agents must be deployed across a ITM environment.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are the three default user groups provided with Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Operator
B. Administrator, Application Users, Operator
C. Application Users, Diagnostic Users, Operator
D. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Application Users
Answer: A

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NO.20 How does a sampled event get closed in IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A sampled event can be manually closed by a user.
B. A sampled event is closed after 60 minutes by default.
C. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it becomes true.
D. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it is no longer true.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-108
Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer wants to consolidate 5 System p servers to a Power 780. Each of the 5 systems run as a
single LPAR. Three systems run applications which are certified by the vendor for AIX 5.2 only. One
system runs AIX 5.3, and the last one runs AIX 6.1.
Which of the following is a supported configuration for consolidation?
A. Create three AIX 5.2 LPARs, one AIX 5.3 LPAR, and one AIX 6.1 LPAR.
B. Create one AIX 7.1 LPAR hosting three AIX 5.2 WPARs, one AIX 5.3 LPAR, and one AIX 6.1 LPAR.
C. Create one AIX 7.1 LPAR hosting three AIX 5.2 WPARs, one AIX 5.3 WPAR, and one AIX 6.1 WPAR.
D. Create one AIX 7.1 LPAR hosting three AIX 5.2 WPARs, and one AIX 6.1 LPAR hosting one AIX 5.3
WPAR.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which was the first release of IBM i to support Multipath I/O (MPIO) at the client LPAR level, when the
same storage is served from redundant VIO Servers?
A. 6.1.0
B. 6.1.1
C. 7.1.0
D. 7.1.1
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has an existing deployment of IBM i LPARs running on POWER6 hardware. The customer
is planning to add new AIX and IBM i LPARs on the same hardware. To avoid purchasing additional
adapters, there is a requirement for the new LPARs to be completely virtualized.
What virtualization options exist for hosting IBM i and AIX LPARs?
A. Virtualization Engine (VE)
B. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
C. Advanced Power Virtualization (APV)
D. Network Server Description (NWSD) and VIO Server
Answer: D

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NO.4 All Power 795 system racks must have door assemblies installed. Three distinct door styles are
available. One of the options - the acoustical door kit - reduces the noise emissions from the system.
What attributes are improved by the other 2 door styles?
A. Weight, height
B. Depth, security
C. Depth, temperature
D. Height, temperature
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has a Power 770 and a Power 795 managed by a single HMC. The existing HMC has two
network connections.
The first adapter is connected to the general company network and uses a static IP address. The second
adapter is connected to a network switch which also has connections to the Flexible Service Processors
(FSPs) of the managed systems and acts as a DHCP server.
It has been decided to add a second HMC for resilience.
Which of the following is a supported method of configuring the new HMC, in relation to the existing
HMC?
A. On the same public network On the same private network, using a different DHCP range
B. On a different public network On the same private network, using the same DHCP range
C. On the same public network On a different private network, using the same DHCP range
D. On a different public network On a different private network, using a different DHCP range
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company which sells books and DVDs runs their business on AIX Enterprise Edition on a Power
795. They have LPARs running back-office applications and other LPARs supporting their Internet based
retail operations. They are considering a policy of switching between TurboCore mode and MaxCore
mode, depending on workload.
Which of the following considerations will have the most impact on the customer's business?
A. The managed system will need to be restarted to change modes.
B. There will be fewer cores available when using TurboCore mode.
C. There will be less L3 cache available per core when using MaxCore mode.
D. The applications running on the affected LPARs must support MaxCore and TurboCore modes.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A system administrator would like to add a new LPAR to an existing Power 770 system that currently
hosts 4 other LPARs. The system has a total of 52 GB of RAM installed and is licensed for Active Memory
Expansion (AME). The current LPARs each have 12 GB of RAM allocated to them, and are tolerant of
varied response times. The new LPAR requires 8 GB of RAM, and requires consistent response time.
There is no money available to purchase additional RAM.
Which of the following options will support adding the new LPAR to the system with minimal impact to the
existing partitions?
A. For each of the pre-existing LPARs, configure AME. For the new LPAR, do not activate AME, and
assign 8 GB of RAM.
B. For each of the pre-existing LPARs, do not activate AME. For the new LPAR, configure AME, and
assign 4 GB of RAM.
C. For each of the pre-existing LPARs, activate and employ AME. For the new LPAR, configure AME, and
assign 4 GB of RAM.
D. For each of the pre-existing LPARs, configure AME, and reduce the physical RAM allocated. For the
new LPAR, do not activate AME, and assign 8 GB of RAM.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which power reduction technology requires a software component in order to be activated?
A. Power capping
B. Processor folding
C. Static power saving
D. Processor core nap mode
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer backs up a database using tools provided by the vendor. The backup files are written to a
filesystem that was initially created for use by the database, but the backup takes an unexpectedly long
time.
Which of the following methods will decrease the time required for backups?
A. Use the vmo command to increase WriteBehind.
B. Switch on Concurrent I/O for target filesystems.
C. Switch off Concurrent I/O for target filesystems.
D. Use the backup tools provided with the operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator attempts to migrate a running LPAR using the 'migrlpar' command. :
What task will help the administrator determine the cause of the errors?
A. Validate the configured attributes on the Properties tab of the LPAR profile.
B. Validate that the VIO servers have the Mover Service Partition (MSP) attribute set.
C. Validate that the required CPU entitlements are available on the destination server.
D. Validate that the Logical Memory Block (LMB) size is consistent between both source and destination.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A partition is running on a Power 770 using POWER7 mode and SMT4. The LPAR has 8.0 units of
entitled capacity assigned, and has 10 virtual processors configured. If the customer uses nmon to
monitor processor activity, how many processors will be shown on the summary screen?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer is adding a second HMC to their two-enclosure Power 780 to provide redundancy.
Which of the following is required?
A. Each HMC requires different DHCP address ranges.
B. The HMCs must be connected to the same FSP port in different enclosures.
C. Both HMCs must be connected to the managed systems on the same private subnet.
D. The primary HMC must be configured as a DHCP host and the failover HMC must be a DHCP client.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following commands traces a processes system calls, received signals, and machine
faults?
A. prof
B. topas
C. truss
D. mpstat
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following commands will enable the SEA accounting.?
A. chacct -dev ent14 -attr enable
B. optimizenet -set accounting=enabled
C. chsea -dev ent14 -attr accounting=enable
D. chdev -dev ent14 -attr accounting=enabled
Answer: D

IBM   000-108   000-108

NO.15 A client is running a two node active/passive cluster on AIX 6.1 and needs to migrate AIX versions
while minimizing the time the cluster runs without a failover node available. They plan to migrate the
passive node, before moving the resources off the active node to migrate it.
Which of the following options will minimize the time that the passive node is unavailable?
A. Run a network-boot NIM migration from the NIM master on the current passive node.
B. Run a local migration from assigned a DVD-RAM media to remove any network overheads.
C. Run the migration using nimadm with cluster services still running on the passive node.
D. Run alt_disk_copy to create a backup to a spare disk prior to initiating a NIM migration.
Answer: C

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NO.16 After upgrading their HMCs to the V7R720 release, a customer was planning to consolidate HMCs by
taking advantage of the raised limit for maximum managed LPARs. They have found two POWER6 570s
on which the password for both HMC and admin UserIDs has been forgotten.
What ASMI UserID can the customer use, when directed by IBM Support, to reset the forgotten
passwords?
A. ibm
B. root
C. padmin
D. celogin
Answer: D

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NO.17 In the following topas output, what does '%client' mean?
A. Percentage of memory that can be paged to paging space.
B. Percentage of real memory used by non-kernel processes.
C. Percentage of virtual memory currently allocated to cache JFS2 files.
D. Percentage of real memory currently allocated to cache JFS2 and NFS files.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer is upgrading a Power 595 to a Power 795 and wants to know the estimated power usage
of the upgraded system.
What is the most comprehensive source for this information?
A. Facts and Features
B. Workload Estimator
C. System Energy Estimator
D. Server Specification Sheets
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator who manages systems in a remote 'lights-out' data center has been sent a set of AIX
device drivers for some storage arrays. The software was sent by email from the third party manufacturer,
in the form of an ISO image.
What is the quickest and easiest way to install the drivers?
A. Using a PC, open a browser window onto the HMC 'updates' page Select the ISO file on the PC and
follow the on-screen instructions
B. Write the ISO image to a CD and place it in a drive on the server Follow the manufacturer's
documentation to complete the installation
C. Transfer the ISO image to a temporary directory on the AIX system cd into the directory and run 'inutoc'
followed by 'smitty installp'
D. Copy the ISO image to AIX and mount it using the 'loopmount' command Install from the mounted
filesystem using the third party guidelines
Answer: C

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NO.20 A system administrator must provide network access to a single VLAN for multiple partitions on a Power
795 server. The Power 795 server has a pair VIO Server (VIOS) partitions, with a Shared Ethernet
Adapter (SEA) in each one. Each SEA will use a single-port Ethernet adapter as a backing device. Both
SEAs must support network traffic so both adapters are used simultaneously. Network service must be
resilient. All client partitions must be able to maintain network access to this VLAN through either VIOS
partition if the other VIOS partition fails or is taken out of service.
Which of the following configurations would satisfy this goal?
A. The SEAs are both connected to the same virtual switch. Both SEAs are configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with one virtual Ethernet adapter
B. The SEAs are each connected to separate virtual switches. Both SEAs are configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with one virtual Ethernet adapter.
C. The SEAs are both connected to the same virtual switch. Neither SEA is configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with NIB on two virtual Ethernet adapters.
D. The SEAs are each connected to separate virtual switches. Neither SEA is configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with NIB on two virtual Ethernet adapters.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Given the following DDL statements:
What is the end result of the CREATE INDEX statement?
A. TBSP21 and TBSP22 will each contain one local index.
B. INDEX_TS will contain one non-partitioned index since the create index command is missing the
PARTITION keyword.
C. TBSP11 and TBSP12 will each contain one local index since the local indexes will physically reside in
the same table space as the related data.
D. TBSP21 will contain one index because NEW_IDX is not partitioned and will automatically go into the
first index partition listed in the create table statement.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Table TAB_A and index TABA_IDX were created by executing these SQL statements:
If this SQL statement is executed after 100,000 records have been inserted into table TAB_A: ALTER
INDEX taba_idx COMPRESS NO;
Which statement correctly describes what will happen to index TABA_IDX?
A. The index will be uncompressed immediately.
B. The index will remain compressed until it is REORGed.
C. The index will remain compressed until the COMPRESS attribute for table TAB_A has been set to NO.
D. The index will remain compressed until the COMPRESS attribute for table TAB_A has been set to NO
and both the table and the index have been REORGed.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If table TAB_A has just been created as follows:
Which command will create a compression dictionary for table TAB_A?
A. DELETE FROM tab_a
B. REORG TABLE tab_a
C. UPDATE tab_a SET c1 = c1*1.1
D. LOAD FROM data.del OF DEL INSERT INTO tab_a
Answer: D

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NO.4 If table TAB_A is created as follows:
Assuming the cardinality of the columns is the same, which statement will create an index that will benefit
the most from compression?
A. CREATE INDEX taba_idx ON tab_a (c2)
B. CREATE INDEX taba_idx ON tab_a (c4)
C. ALTER TABLE tab_a ADD PRIMARY KEY (c1)
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX taba_idx ON tab_a (c2)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of following is true when decomposing multiple XML documents?
A. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column or in an XML column.
B. It is not possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column or in an XML
column.
C. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column but not in an XML
column.
D. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a XML column but not in an binary
column.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Index INDEX1 has been created as follows: CREATE INDEX index1 ON table_x (cola) Which of the
following actions can be done through an ALTER INDEX statement?
A. Add a column to the index key.
B. Change the PCTFREE specification.
C. Make the COMPRESS attribute YES or NO.
D. Make this index the clustering index.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following SQL statements will return monitoring information of tables in the DB2USER
schema that begin with the letter 'A'?
A. SELECT * FROM mon_get_table('DB2USER','A%',-2)
B. SELECT * FROM TABLE(mon_get_table('DB2USER','A%',-2))
C. SELECT * FROM mon_get_table('DB2USER',",-2) WHERE TABNAME LIKE 'A%'
D. SELECT * FROM TABLE(mon_get_table('DB2USER','',-2)) WHERE TABNAME LIKE 'A%'
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click on the Exhibit button
Given the following DDL statements:
If COL2 contains XML documents similar to the one shown in the scenario, what is the end result of the
CREATE INDEX statement?
A. An error will be returned because it is not possible to create an index for an XML column like COL2.
B. TBSP11 and TBSP12 will each contain one local index for XML_INDEX since the local indexes will
physically reside in the same table space as the related data.
C. An error will be returned because it is not possible to include more than one column as part of the
CREATE INDEX statement when one of the columns is of type XML.
D. A non-partitioned index will be created in table space TBSP21 since the INDEX IN clause of the table
definition is ignored and XML_INDEX will automatically be created within the first index partition listed in
the create table statement.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which is true regarding collecting distribution statistics for XML data?
A. XML distribution statistics are collected for indexes over XML data of type VARCHAR.
B. XML distribution statistics are collected for indexes over XML data of type VARCHAR HASHED.
C. XML distribution statistics are collected when collecting index statistics during index creation.
D. XML distribution statistics are collected for partitioned indexes over XML data defined on a data
partitioned table.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When storing XML data in a DB2 database, which statement is valid.?
A. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database.
B. A table with an XML column can only be defined in a Unicode database.
C. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database but the table containing the
XML column will be stored in Unicode.
D. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database but the database must be
converted to Unicode before the XML columns can be used.
Answer: A

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Total Q&A: 32 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is a buffer pool in DB2?
A. A buffer pool is an area of main memory that has been allocated by the database manager for the
purpose of caching table and index data as it is read from the physical media.
B. A buffer pool is a DB2 code that manages databases.
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D. A buffer pool is a logical storage grouping composed of one or more containers.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a DB2 instance.?
A. A DB2 instance is just another name for DB2 Database.
B. A DB2 instance controls and monitors users?interactions with the Data Server.
C. A DB2 instance is a logical database manager environment where you catalog databases and set
configuration parameters.
D. DB2 does not use instances. It requires only databases to operate.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are some of the benefits of DB2 Express?
A. DB2 Express has affordable licensing terms with all of the core features of the DB2 engine.
B. DB2 Express is designed for development and testing. It is not used as a production database.
C. DB2 Express is faster and more powerful than the DB2 product.
D. DB2 Express is a tool that allows the DBA to quickly solve (expressly) complex issues with the DB2
version of software.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is a contributor of member records to the Hub.?
A. Attribute Segment
B. Definitional Source
C. Informational Source
D. Consuming Source
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the MADUNLLOAD job do?
A. It loads the records into the report extractor
B. It formats the Dun & Bradstreet data to be loaded into the relationships table
C. It performs simple data cleansing, like removing blanks and zeros
D. It loads UNL files into the database for Member, Entity, Audit, and Relationship data
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the view of a member or entity in Inspector called?
A. Enterprise View
B. Composite View
C. Consolidated View
D. Most Current View
Answer: B

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