2013年5月30日星期四

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Exam Code: 000-109
Exam Name: IBM (Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux - v2 )

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NO.1 How can an existing AIX 5.2 LPAR, which is using SAN storage, be migrated into a versioned WPAR
(Workload Partition)?
A. Using LPM, but downtime will be required.
B. Dynamically using LAM.
C. Backup and restore a mksysb.
D. Rezone the SAN storage and use NPIV.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is designing a new system for their existing batch environment. The current system is
a POWER5 570 with 16 cores and 128GB of RAM with a single LPAR running AIX 5.3. It takes 12 hours
to run their large batch job which is heavily CPU bound on 4 the available CPUs.
The new system will be a Power 770 with 16 cores, 128GB of RAM and the LPAR will run AIX 6.1.What
should be done to maximize the batch performance?
A. Activate TurboCore mode during batch processing
B. Disable Simultaneous Multi-threading
C. Disable Multiple Shared Processor Pools
D. Set the processor compatibility mode to POWER7
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has the following configuration on a VIO Server:
Why is this error being displayed?
A. ent3 is configured as 'standard' instead of '802.3ad'
B. ent3 is a LHEA port and requires the -L flag
C. ent3 has no interface connected
D. ent3 is controlled by the SEA
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will cause a broadcast storm when configuring redundant VIO servers with SEA failover?
A. The secondary SEA is brought online before the configured primary SEA.
B. A mismatch of defined VLANs between the primary and secondary SEA.
C. The secondary SEA is created before enabling failover on the primary SEA.
D. Incorrect EtherChannel configuration on one SEA
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator is creating several LPARs on a new Power Systems server. The administrator knows
that Live Partition Mobility (LPM) will be used to distribute the workload between this new machine and
several others in the environment.
In addition to ensuring all storage is allocated through Virtual IO servers, what else must the administrator
take into consideration when creating the new LPARs?
A. LPAR names in the environment must be unique.
B. Redundant error path reporting must be configured.
C. Only LPARs belonging to the same workload group can be moved between servers.
D. The Virtual IO server code level must be the same across all servers.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available for
installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An architect is looking at the implications of uncapped weights for a new POWER7 system. The
system will consist of four uncapped logical partitions with the following weightings:
Assuming all partitions have equal entitlement and virtual processor configurations in the partition profiles,
and request additional resources from the shared processor pool over a period of 1000 cycles, how many
cycles will be allocated to LPAR B?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 300
D. 1000
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO Server
mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.11 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

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NO.12 The wlmstat -@ 2 command has been run from a global environment with the following results:
What action can an administrator take to set limits, so that both server1 and server2 use the same amount
of CPU resources?
A. Use the cpu_deallocate -P command to reduce the CPU resources on server2
B. Use the chsysres command to assign the same CPU attributes to both servers.
C. Use the chwpar -R command to set the CPU attributes for each server.
D. Use the syncwpar -E command to copy the CPU resource allocation from server1 to server2.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A Linux LPAR is configured using 802.1Q.
The virtual Ethernet device is configured as an 802.1Q compatible adapter and has VLAN ID 5 configured
in the 802.1Q additional VLAN field.
The administrator runs the following commands on the Linux LPAR shell without errors:
vconfig add eth0 5ifconfig eth0 10.0.0.2 netmask 255.255.255.0
When the administrator tries to ping 10.0.0.1, the request times out.
What is the problem?
A. The VLAN ID should be in the VLAN-ID field in the virtual Network device configuration.
B. The administrator is using the incorrect Ethernet device.
C. The 8021q module is not loaded.
D. The 802.1Q interfaces are not supported on Linux on Power Systems servers.
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the event
of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator is preparing to upgrade the environment's dual Virtual I/O servers (VIOS) from V1.2
to V2.1
What must considered in preparation for this upgrade?
A. All client LPARs must be shutdown as both VIO servers have to be upgraded to V2.1 at the same time.
B. The VIOS must be upgraded to the latest fixpack of V1.5 before upgrading to V2.1.
C. The only upgrade method that will be supported is using NIM because the current VIOS is lower than
V1.3.
D. VIOS V2.1 requires AIX clients to be running AIX V6.1 at a minimum.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 An LPAR is configured using Virtual IO. It has two Virtual SCSI adapters, connecting it to two VIO
servers.
The disks presented over Virtual SCSI are available across both Virtual SCSI adapters (2 paths).
Assuming 20 disks are required, what is the maximum recommended queue depth to maximize
performance?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 510
D. 512
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator is performing a Live Partition Mobility (LPM) operation between two servers managed
by different HMCs.
While monitoring the performance of the partition, the virtual console window suddenly closes. What is the
most likely cause?
A. The virtual console is controlled by the HMC and closes when the second takes control of the partition.
B. The virtual console is a connection to the FSP of the physical server and closes when the LPAR
migrates.
C. The SSH keys have not been exchanged between HMCs.
D. The FSP has the MAC address for the first HMC cached in NVRAM.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which interface must be used to provide virtualization of tape library devices to client LPARs?
A. USB
B. LTO
C. Virtual SCSI
D. Virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-164
Exam Name: IBM (Infrastructure Technical Leader V1)

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NO.1 A Business Partner customer has stated that the performance of their N series and vSphere
environment is unacceptable.A Business Partner? customer has stated that the performance of their N
series and vSphere environment is unacceptable. What plan of action is appropriate for the Business
Partner to take in this situation?
A. Review the planned performance and the customers?expectations to develop an action plan.
B. Suggest more disks on the N series to boost the performance.
C. Contact IBM Techline to hand off the performance issue
D. Contact IBM for vSphere technical support
Answer: A

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NO.2 During a project status meeting, the representative from the customer storage team raises a concern
about the impact of new hardware on the existing SAN infrastructure. This concern was not raised during
the pre-sales or TDA process, but may substantially impact the timeline. How should the concern be
addressed?
A. Provide the SAN Connectivity Redbook
B. Schedule another TDA
C. Schedule a separate meeting with SAN Subject Matter Experts
D. Propose new SAN equipment
Answer: C

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NO.3 A TDA attempts to answer which one of the following questions?
A. Can the solution be successfully implemented?
B. Is the solution the most cost effective option?
C. Are all contracts completed and correct?
D. Are the terms and conditions acceptable?
Answer: A

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NO.4 A prospect is discussing current tape library and backup strategy. Which of the following questions
would identify the customer business motivation?Which of the following questions would identify the
customer? business motivation.?
A. What software is used for backup?
B. Has there been a recent loss of data?
C. How many tapes are in the library?
D. What is the current tape technology?
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is nearing completion of a infrastructure project that was based on your team
recommendations. All workloads are performing as fast orA customer is nearing completion of a
infrastructure project that was based on your team? recommendations. All workloads are performing as
fast or faster than prior to project implementation, The customer has just informed you that a critical
customer facing application is too slow and it is unacceptable. Which of the following steps should have
been taken to prevent this situation?
A. Completion of a post install Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA)
B. Development of a performance expectations document
C. Detailed documentation of planned LPAR configurations
D. Provide benchmark data for recommended products
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-553
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist Netezza Performance Software v6.0)

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;
What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?
A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing
Answer: A

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NO.3 After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in
progress.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.11 When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large
fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.19 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings
permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-183
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Mesage Broker V7.0, Solution Development)

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NO.1 Consider the following ESQL code snippet from a Compute node.
What is the value of OutputRoot.XMLNSC?
A.NULL
B.<Winner/>
C.<Winner Name="Robert"/>
D.<Winner><Name>Rocky</Name></Winner>
Answer: D

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NO.2 A solution developer needs to help a software company to decide whether to use HTTP nodes or
SOAP nodes in developing web services.Which of the following benefits would the solution developer use
in support of SOAP nodes over HTTP nodes?
A.Support for a broker wide listener.
B.Support for runtime validation against WSDL.
C.Support for other web service standards, like REST and XML-RPC.
D.Support for external Web servlet container to provide listener support for a larger number of concurrent
sessions.E.Automatic processing of Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM).
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 When a message is received by an Input node in a message flow, the message assembly is
created.Which tree or trees are populated when an error free message is received by a FileInput node?
A.The Message tree only.
B.The Message tree and Environment tree.
C.The Message tree and LocalEnvironment tree.
D.The Message tree, Environment tree, LocalEnvironment tree, and ExceptionList tree.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A large company needs to interface their legacy application with a newly acquired Enterprise
Information System (EIS) application called Siebel CRM.Which transport service will the developer use to
discover metadata and send requests to the EIS system?
A.MQ Link for R3
B.WebSphere Broker Adapters
C.WebSphere Broker File Transport
D.WebSphere Business Integration Adapter
Answer: B

IBM   000-183   000-183   000-183

NO.5 View the Exhibit:
The above flow processes a large incoming file line by line once every four hours.Performance is
unsatisfactory even though the server has spare memory and unused processors.Configuring additional
instances does not improve this.The following pair of flows was suggested by an architect.The first flow
will slice the incoming file into messages without any further processing, which is to be done by the
second flow.
What is the expected outcome if the second flow is configured with a large number of additional
instances?
A.Throughput will improve somewhat.Message sequence will not be affected.
B.Throughput will be unaffecte
D.Message sequence will most likely be affected.
C.Throughput will improve significantly.Message sequence will most likely be affected.
D.Throughput will deteriorate slightly due to the extra queuing.Message sequence will not be affected.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Consider the following two implementations of a request/response pattern.1) Asynchronous with a
separate flow for the response logic using an MQInput node
2)
Synchronous, completing the round trip in the same flow pulling the response message with an MQGet
node
Which of the following is FALSE?
A.Multiple flow instances will not help throughput in either implementation.
B.The synchronous implementation will require more memory, especially in scenarios with large
messages and high throughput requirements.
C.Given sufficient resources, the synchronous implementation will perform better in cases where large
amounts of data (i

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Exam Code: 000-M96
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1)

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NO.1 Which Unica Campaign process defines the criteria to locate a set or group, such as a list of customers,
from a customer's marketing data?
A.Select
B.Audience
C.Merge
D.Sample
Answer:A

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NO.2 Where does a customer obtain a software license key, which is required for Unica Campaign v8.2 or
lower?
A.By contacting admin@us.ibm.com.
B.By contacting the Unica license administrator.
C.By contacting campaignlicense@us.ibm.com.
D.By contacting Unica support.
Answer:D

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NO.3 What type of data table in Unica Campaign contains information that augments a base table; for
example, demographics, accounts belonging to a customer, order transactions belonging to a customer?
A.Base record table
B.Dimension table
C.General table
D.Active record table
Answer:B

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NO.4 In Unica Campaign, where do you navigate to access the Advanced Settings that allow you to manage
some Unica Campaign settings and server optimization features.?
A.Go to the Summary tab of the campaign.
B.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Options.
C.View the flowchart in View mode and select Run.
D.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Admin.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What is a recommended part of the planning process for a customer in order to install Unica Campaign?
A.Hardware and software environment and Unica hardware sizing parameters.
B.Create Campaigns
C.Install Cognos
D.Configure the Unica Marketing platform parameters.
Answer:A

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NO.6 When working with Unica Campaign Response History Administration, what is a key step before
beginning the work?
A.Configure response processes.
B.Define audience levels.
C.Configure table mappings.
D.Configure audience process.
Answer:B

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NO.7 What is a key tool to use when creating the database and schema for the Unica Campaign system
tables?
A.unica_actrg
B.Unica Campaign database information checklist.
C.unica_svradmin
D.Database native data loaders.
Answer:B

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NO.8 If you are using Unica Campaign with more than one partition, what must a customer do to configure
the IBM Cognos Reports Package?
A.The Reports Package does not support multiple partitions.
B.Configure once for all partitions.
C.Install Cognos on a separate server.
D.Configure for each partition.
Answer:A

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NO.9 What do you use in Unica Campaign to create a new variable for querying, segmenting, sorting,
calculating, or providing output to a table?
A.Derived Fields
B.Snapshot Process
C.Extract Process
D.Dimension Hierarchy
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which Unica Campaign object(s) has no naming restrictions, for instance, using special characters
like ? or >?
A.Audience levels not including audience level field names.
B.Custom attribute display names not including custom attribute internal names.
C.Offer templates
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

IBM   000-M96   000-M96

NO.11 What templates does a customer need to import if the Unica Marketing Platform and Unica Campaign
system tables databases are of the same database type?
A.None, the system automatically imports the template.
B.SQLServer template
C.Oracle template
D.DB2 template
Answer:A

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NO.12 For Unica Campaign, what prefix is used for system tables?
A.UARC_
B.DBO_
C.UA_
D.SYS_
Answer:C

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NO.13 What key concept in Unica Campaign provides a collection or set of one or more tasks, or processes,
that Unica Campaign executes to specify and select the desired target(s) of a customer's marketing
campaign and, optionally, assigns offers, outputs data and tracks responses?
A.Offer
B.Campaign
C.Flowchart
D.Session
Answer:C

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NO.14 When should a user regenerate a strategic segment in Unica Campaign?
A.Never
B.Daily
C.When datasource contents have changed.
D.Whenever a new campaign is created.
Answer:C

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NO.15 What utility tool should a customer use if they want to export an XML version of configuration settings
for backup, or to import the settings into a different installation of Unica Marketing Platform?
A.populateDb
B.configTool
C.partitionDb
D.unica_actrg
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 000-539
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Administration )

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NO.1 What is supported and eligible for export from one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server to
another?
A. network attached storage nodes
B. data from a Centera device class
C. data from a server with retention protection enabled
D. file data from a TSM V6.2 server to TSM V6.1 server storage
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which task menu is used when configuring IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Backup-Archive client
preferences in the Backup-Archive graphical user interface?
A. Edit
B. Utilities
C. Actions
D. Options
Answer: B

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NO.3 A network data management protocol (NDMP) network attached storage device must be backed to
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM). Which interfaces are supported to perform this function?
A. TSM Client Scheduler, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line client
B. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, NDMP command line client, administrative command line client
C. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line
client
D. TSM NDMP graphical user interface, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command
line client
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two requirements for a properly working Web client? (Choose two.)
A. a supported Web server
B. an administrator with at least node owner authority
C. the client acceptor daemon service dsmcad is set up and running
D. the passwordacces option in the client option file is set to prompt
E. an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server with an extended edition license
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which option must be set to perform IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 database backups to certain
device classes?
A. set dbbackup
B. set dbrecovery
C. set dbdevclass
D. set drmdbbackupexpiredays
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which privilege class is needed to issue administrator commands that only affect specific storage
pools?
A. Restricted Policy privilege
B. Restricted Storage privilege
C. Unrestricted Policy privilege
D. Unrestricted Storage privilege
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 administrator create a separate place for backing up a
client's data that must have the most current versions of files for a single server?
A. define a full backup pool
B. define a file device class
C. define an active data pool
D. define a disk storage pool
Answer: C

IBM   000-539   000-539

NO.8 Which privilege class is required to create the Disaster Recovery Plan?
A. System
B. Security
C. Operator
D. Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which configuration file must be edited to enable journal backups in AIX?
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. journal.ini
D. tsmjbbd.ini
Answer: D

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NO.10 How is an Oracle database backed up consistently with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) when
Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) is not available?
A. shut down the database then select the TSM API
B. leave the database open and use the TSM Backup-Archive client
C. shut down the database then use the TSM Backup-Archive client
D. backup the database using Oracle tools and then use TSM Data Protector for Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which option allows users to specify how directory structures are handled when performing a restore
to a new location?
A. restoredir
B. preservedir
C. restorepath
D. preservepath
Answer: D

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NO.12 While attempting to configure a network attached storage (NAS) backup, an IBM Storage Manager
V6.2 (TSM) administrator is unable to access the Web client graphical user interface to initiate a network
data management protocol backup. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. authentication=on is not set on the TSM server
B. insufficient access rights to traverse the NAS file system
C. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in dsm.opt
D. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in ndmp.opt
E. passwordaccess=generate is not set on the Backup-Archive client
Answer: A,B

IBM   000-539   000-539

NO.13 What are two optional recovery log types when implementing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2
server? (Choose two.)
A. Active log
B. Active log mirror
C. Archive Mirror log
D. Active Fail-over log
E. Archive Fail-over log
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 What is the function of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) client scheduler.?
A. It enables security for the scheduling service.
B. It enables tasks to be performed automatically.
C. It enables the client to control access to the TSM server.
D. It enables backup scheduling on AIX or Linux clients only.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How is a management class MC associated with a file or file group in the client options file?
A. update <file name> MC
B. include <file name> MC
C. associate <file name> MC
D. set policy <file name> MC
Answer: B

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NO.16 What must be defined for data deduplication?
A. active data pool
B. ProtecTIER device
C. client staging area
D. storage pool for deduplication
Answer: D

IBM   000-539   000-539   000-539 questions

NO.17 Which command displays the Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) Plan parameters?
A. Show DRMPLAN
B. Query DRMSTATUS
C. Query Recoveryplan
D. Query DRMRECOVERYPLAN
Answer: B

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NO.18 What ensures that VMware full and incremental backups do not backup subfile data relating to the
virtual machine node being protected?
A. exclude.subfile *:\..\*
B. vmbacknodelete YES
C. exclude.dir subfile=no
D. include.subfile g:\tsm\vmbackup\...\*
Answer: A

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NO.19 What type of information does the Client Activity History Report provide in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.2?
A. image backups
B. client nodes in session
C. client nodes participating
D. network data management protocol backups
Answer: C

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NO.20 After configuring the monitoring agent for monitoring, which application is used to display the IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.2 near real-time status?
A. IBM Tivoli Integrated Portal
B. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Center
D. IBM Tivoli Productivity Center
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M235
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Security Sales Mastery Test v4)

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NO.1 Which of the following Tivoli Security solutions offers the quickest approaches in terms of demoing,
estimating ROI and quick implementation?
A. Tivoli Identity Manager
B. Tivoli zSecure suite
C. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
D. Tivoli Access Manager for Single Sign-On
Answer: B

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NO.2 The IBM Security Framework highlights the three ways in which IBM delivers security to our customers.
What are those three ways?
A. IBM Security Products, Professional Security Services, and Managed Security Services.
B. Professional Security Services, Managed Security Services, and Business Continuity Services
C. Managed Security Services, IBM Security Products, and Tier 1 OEM Security Vendors
D. Threat Mitigation Services, Data Security Services, and IBM Security Products
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the name of the IBM Security research and development organization:
A. Global Security Operations Center
B. X-Force
C. X-Cert
D. Security Intel Resource
Answer: B

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NO.4 Network IPS, Server Protection and VSP for VMware have which competitive advantages in common.?
A. Built-in firewalls and reverse proxying capability.
B. SSL Inspection capability and support for ISO 17843.
C. Rootkit detection and file integrity checking.
D. Backing by X-Force, largest number of protected protocols and file formats and the Protocol Analysis
Modular (PAM) technologies
Answer: D

IBM   000-M235   000-M235   000-M235 questions

NO.5 What is the key to the significant time and money efficiencies that Tivoli Identity Manager (TIM) is able
to afford customers'?
A. Quick install and time to operation.
B. Support for a large number of target environments.
C. Assignment of users to roles and provisioning policies based on roles rather than individual users.
D. Graphical user interface that's far superior to the competition.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-Z03
Exam Name: IBM (zEnterprise Solution Sales Update Mastery)

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NO.1 A customer currently has blades of several types, including Intel-based blades, and is using
virtualization.Without having more details of the customer
current environment what could be
presented as an advantage of the Unified Resource Manager and zBX?
A.Ability to define and run more virtual machines per virtualized blade
B.Managing the workloads in the blades according to goal-oriented policies
C.Employing a single hypervisor across all the platforms
D.Ability to easily relocate virtual machines across platforms
Answer: B

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NO.2 What software pricing option should be considered for a z/OS environment on a stand alone z114?
A.VWLC and ELA
B.IPLA or EWLC
C.AEWLC
D.PSLC
Answer: C

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NO.3 When discussing z/OS with a new customer WLM was presented as a key differentiator. However the
customer countered its current competitive system also has a workload manager.Which one is a key
difference of z/OS WLM?
A.Manages in a holistic way all the workload elements running in z/OS
B.Can manage a multi-tier workload residing in the zEnterprise CPC and in the zBX
C.Manages processes, memory and I/O, minimizing resources
D.Minimizes required resources across the zEnterprise (CPC and zBX)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has many highly variable Linux workloads that would virtualize very well with z/VM. The
customer has no z/VM skills.The customer wants to implement a capacity management and chargeback
system.Which of these alternatives would be the most appropriate zEnterprise solution?
A.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with Unified Resource Manager to provide a simplified management interface
B.zBX since recent announcements shift focus away from Linux on z/VM as a viable solution
C.Linux on Power blades in a zBX with Unified Resource Manager for simplified management
D.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with services to setup and provide ongoing support for z/VM
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has a large number of distributed servers running Linux.Which of the following is a potential
benefit of consolidating these systems onto a System z running Linux?
A.If the distributed servers are highly utilized, they make good candidates to consolidate onto a System z
running Linux.
B.Linux on System z is controlled by IBM, it is far superior to Linux on other platforms.
C.Server consolidation may result in a reduced footprint, environmental savings, and increased speed of
virtual Linux server creation.
D.Consolidating onto a System z can increase security since the use of HiperSockets is required.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M249
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Performance Management Sales Mastery Test vl)

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NO.1 Which agenda item is assigned the highest priority by Chief Information Officers (ClOs), according to
studies by IBM and Gartner?
A. compliance
B. business analytics
C. mobility solutions
D. risk management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which product is best suited for a company looking to automate their electronic financial reporting
processes to ensure regulatory compliance?
A. Clarity FSR
B. OpenPages ITG
C. Cognos Controller
D. Cognos TMl
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the three ways the world is changing according to the IBM Smarter Planet
message?
A. intricate
B. instrumented
C. interconnected
D. intelligent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which financial reporting format, supported by IBM Clarity FSR, is quickly becoming the global standard
for exchanging business information because of how efficiently data can be tagged and analyzed.?
A. GAAP
B. XBRL
C. IFRS
D. EDGAR
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization is struggling to efficiently meet the financial reporting requirements in their country.
Which offering is designed specifically to help this customer automate their entire compliance lifecycle?
A. OpenPages UG
B. OpenPages Audit
C. OpenPages Operational Risk Management (ORM)
D. OpenPages Financial Controls Management (FCM)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-302
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 Database and Application Fundamentals - Academic Initiative )

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NO.1 If table TABLE1 contains 50 rows, which of the following statement will only return the first five of the
rows?
A. SELECT * FROM table1 MAXROWS 5
B. SELECT * FROM table1 RETURN FIRST 5 ROWS
C. SELECT * FROM table1 WHILE ROW < 5
D. SELECT * FROM table1 FETCH FIRST 5 ROWS ONLY
Answer: D

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NO.2 The link between a column or set of columns in one table that refers to the set of column in another
table is?
A. Pointer
B. Cursor
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the correct syntax for using the XMLTRANSFORM SQL/XML function?
A. UPDATE XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE ID = 1
and XSLID = 2;
B. SELECT FROM XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE
ID = 1 and XSLID = 2;
C. SELECT INTO XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE
ID = 1 and XSLID = 2;
D. SELECT XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE ID = 1
and XSLID = 2;
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider TB1 has no rows initially and that the auto commit feature is disabled. After execution of the
following statements, how many rows will be inserted in TB1?
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (1, 'ABC')
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (2, 'DEF') COMMIT
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (3, 'GHI')
ROLLBACK
COMMIT
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following commands produces a backup image from a database?
A. START BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE USING D:\bkp
B. BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TARGET= D:\bkp
C. BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TO D:\bkp
D. START BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TO D:\bkp
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is true about the table below?
CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEE (ID INTEGER NOT NULL,NAME VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL,EXTENSION
INTEGER NOT NULL,MANAGER VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY (ID));
TERMINATE;
ID NAME EXTENSION MANAGER 1 John S 53412 Y 2 Susan P 54123 N 3 Jennifer L 51234 N
A. ID is a value found in the EMPLOYEE table
B. ID, 1, 2, 3 makes up a row in the EMPLOYEE table
C. The MANAGER domain consists only of the value Y
D. NAME, John S, Susan P, Jennifer L makes up a column in the EMPLOYEE table
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT displayed by DB2 Access Plan?
A. Properties for operators
B. Indexes or columns
C. Global information
D. Authorization type
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following table:
USERS
ID INTEGER NOT NULL
NAME CHAR(20) NOT NULL
PASSWORD VARCHAR(30)
Which INSERT statement is NOT correct?
A. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, 'Jim', 'password')
B. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, 'Jim', NULL )
C. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, '', 'password')
D. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, NULL, 'password')
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a valid approach for storing XML documents?
A. Shredding XML documents into tables in a RDBMS
B. Storing XML documents in CLOB columns
C. Inserting XML documents in an integer column
D. Using an external XML-only database
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A user can define multiple indexes for a single table in DB2.
B. An index for a table is used to improve SQL query performance.
C. An index can be defined on a view.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.11 User X needs access to server A and B, while user Y needs access to server B, C and D, how many
DB2 server licenses by PVU do they need in total assuming all users can be using all machines they have
access to at the same time?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.12 Consider a table TAB1 having the following values:
TAB1
COL1 COL2
A 10 B 20 C 30 A 10 D 40 C 20
Consider the result of a given query:
COL1
A B
D
Which of the following statements would produce the given query result:
A. SELECT COL1 FROM TAB1 ORDER BY COL1 FETCH FIRST 4 ROWS ONLY
B. SELECT COL1 FROM TAB1 FETCH FIRST 4 ROWS ONLY
C. SELECT DISTINCT COL1 FROM TAB1
D. SELECT UNIQUE COL1 FROM TAB1
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT a valid authentication type that can be used by DB2?
A. CLIENT
B. CLIENT_ENCRYPT
C. SERVER
D. SERVER_ENCRYPT
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT a definition of a relation?
A. A relation may be thought of as a set of columns.
B. Each row represents a fact that corresponds to a real-world entity or relationship
C. Each row has a value of an item or set of items that uniquely identifies that row in the table
D. Each column typically is called by its column name or column header or attribute name
Answer: A

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NO.15 Consider the following statement. "Indexes can be created on computed columns." Is this statement:
A. True.
B. False.
C. True, but only when the column data is produced by a sequence.
D. False, but only when the column data is produced by a sequence.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Consider the following scenario:
Suday: full backup
Monday: delta incremental
Tuesday: incremental
Wednesday: delta incremental
Thursday: system crashed
Which of the following options contains the correct restore order so that the database can be restored to
the last stable moment before the crash.?
A. Restore the incremental backup from Tuesday and the incremental backup from Wednesday, then roll
forward the database using the transaction log files.
B. Restore only the delta incremental backup from Wednesday.
C. Restore the full backup from Sunday, the incremental cumulative backup from Tuesday, the
incremental delta from Wednesday, then roll forward the database using the transaction log files.
D. Restore the full backup from Sunday, the delta incremental from Wednesday, then roll forward the
transaction log files.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following statements can be used to increase in 10% the salary of all employees in
department D1?
A. UPDATE employees WHERE dept = 'D1' SET salary = salary * 1.1
B. UPDATE employees SET salary = (salary * 1.1)
C. UPDATE employees SET salary = salary * 1.1 WHERE dept = 'D1'
D. UPDATE salary = salary * 1.1 ON TABLE employees WHERE dept = 'D1'
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT true about Database Management Systems?
A. Relational Database Management Systems use Structured Query Language to interact with
databases.
B. Database Management Systems act as an interface used to communicate with databases.
C. Applications can choose to bypass the Database Management System when accessing databases for
performance reasons.
D. DB2 is a Database Management System.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Consider the following. As the user MYUSER, you issue the following command:
CREATE ALIAS A1 for T1
What will be the result of the command?
A. The alias DEFAULT.A1 is created for DEFAULT.T1.
B. The alias MYUSER.A1 is created for MYUSER.T1.
C. The alias ALIAS.A1 is created for ALIAS.T1.
D. You get an error because your command is ambiguous, as the schema is not specifieD.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following statements CANNOT be issued against indexes?
A. CREATE
B. ALTER
C. DROP
D. All of the above can be issued against indexes.
Answer: C

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